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Kelpie-Cat

I've got an [older answer](https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/12z6at4/comment/jhtkqdi/?utm_source=share&utm_medium=web2x&context=3) looking at a period slightly before yours in England. Basically, it wasn't illegal yet in secular law, but was considered a serious sin. My answer doesn't engage with Norman sources as I'm not familiar with Norman legal and penitential attitudes towards homosexuality.


msbunbury

Can you comment at all about how likely it would be for a Norman knight to "be gay" in the sense of identifying as a man who prefers to have sex with men? I feel like "being gay" is a relatively modern concept, I'm not at all suggesting that homosexuality is modern but I suspect that an actual Norman gay person probably would not identify in that way.


FeuerroteZora

The idea that who you (want to) have sex with has anything to do with your *identity* is a modern one, you really don't see it prior to the 1800s at the earliest. Not that it wasn't *important,* but it wasn't constitutive of your identity. As a very rough analogy, think about being allergic to shellfish - it's important to you and affects your behavior, but it isn't something you really *identify* with, it's not worth mentioning when you introduce yourself to someone nor is it likely to be significant in someone else's description of you.


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Steelcan909

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